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Re: language
Posted by: C. Fronzek (ID *****3367) Date: January 20, 2008 at 09:55:54
In Reply to: Re: language by Lesley Gibbs of 17217

The Austro-Hungarian empire was not a single country like Britain. It was two countries that had a common monarch, a common army, and a common foreign policy. That's it. The Hungarian nobility twisted the tail of the Hapsburg monarchy to make certain their citizens were not simultaneously Austrian citizens. Each new Hapsburg monarch had to go to Hungary to be crowned a second time.
Each of these countries was, at least, 4 times bigger back then so, it is imperative to know where a person came from. That is where the records are today if they have survived.
The historical time line goes like this. Modern day Slovakia was the northermost territory of the Kingdom of Hungary. It was NOT called Slovakia. The Hungarians wouldn't let such a designation exist. Slovakia became a reality in 1920 when they and others joined the Czechs, who had been citizens of Austria, to form a new nation, Czechoslovakia.
Czechoslovakia was then divided in 1993.
A lot of this doesn't matter in genealogy because, it is fairly easy to find a place in today's world if you have it's name from a former time.
One thing that can be said is the name "FESKO" is it is of Ruthenian origin. The "ko" ending tells us that. Ruthenians were a Slavic minority that lived in the northeast corner of the kingdom. That does not mean that all Feskos saw themselves as Ruthenians. There was a lot of internal migration when the Ottoman Turks were driven from Hungary in the 1690's. The movement of people meant the movement of names. This brings us back to the necessity of knowing where a person came from exactly.


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